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Re: Why four categories of causation?



Arrggh...typo. Where I wrote "...but Rosen does anywhere...", I meant to write "...but Rosen does not anywhere...".
 
Also, to clarify that point: to say that any system can be analyzed according to some particular mode of analysis would not entail that such an analysis is an exhaustive one. Just as, for example, the ability to analyze any system into Newtonian state-based descriptions does not entail that Newtonian state-based descriptions are exhaustive of system descriptions.
 
Regards,
Tim
 
-----Original Message-----
From: ROSEN Forum [mailto:***On Behalf Of Tim Gwinn
Sent: Wednesday, January 12, 2005 8:59 AM
To: ***
Subject: Re: Why four categories of causation?

Steve,
 
 SJ: Having put this to rest here are my questions:
 
1) In everything I've read Rosen always takes Aristotelian taxonomy of causes as given. I've never seen an argument that would justify this particular choice. Should we consider Aristotelian taxonomy of causes a foundational axiom in the Rosennean view? Does it have the same status as the concept of Natural Law itself?
 
TG: I do not think the Aristotelian taxonomy is to be considered at the same level as Natural Law.  Instead, I think Aristotelian categories is best thought of one kind of mode of analysis. It is a particularly useful mode of analysis, but Rosen does anywhere (that I have seen) claim it to be the only way to analyze entailment relations. That would be an entirely artefactual limitation. By the very nature of Rosennean complexity, Aristotelian analysis is not exhaustive: in complex system the four causal categories fail to remain distinct, and instead become intertwined.
 
2) Are there other taxonomies of causes?
 
TG: I am unaware of any others.
 
3) Is "Efficient Cause" a rigorously defined concept? Rosen (and others) in describing this concept typically give the Aristotelian example of the "house" with bricks as material cause, construction workers as efficient cause, blueprint as formal cause, and intent to dwell as the final cause. I've never seen any more rigorous definition besides invocation of this admittedly useful metaphor. What is the definition of efficient cause? Can anyone provide a defintion that does not invoke the house metaphor? Efficient cause is key to Rosen's argument in Life Itself so I think it's important to have a consensus on what it means.
TG: From Aristotle's Physics II.7: "They [the aitia] are four, and the student of nature should know about them all, and it will be his method, when stating on account of what, to get back to them all: the matter, the form, the thing which effects the change, and what the thing is for.". So, efficient cause is "the thing which effects the change". (Aristotle himself did not use the term "efficient cause" - that name was assigned to it later on in history somewhere.)
 
As Jannie, pointed out, the Greek word usually translated into 'cause' is 'aition' (or 'aitia'). But 'cause' is a bit of an incorrect translation, especially since it is pre-loaded with certain other connotations of causality. >From the quote above, aitia are the answers to "on account of what?" (or more briefly, "why?"). I have also read that aitia carries the connotation of "that which is responsible" in the legal sense of 'responsible'. So, "efficient cause" might also be defined as "that which is responsible for effecting change".
 
Regards,
Tim