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Re: Is it sure that any mechanism has a largest model? (LI,8C, p.205)
- From: John Kineman <***>
- Date: Mon, 13 Dec 2004 09:43:22 -0700
Judith,
This strikes me as the correct explanation. It also defines a logical
paradox. The very concept of "mechanism" presumes a finite largest model
that is therefore a reality, and yet we also understand any mechanistic
theory to be an approximation to reality. Both cannot be true. Hence
either the entire universe is a mechanism, and there is no complexity,
or there are no real mechanisms, all of them are abstractions.
JK.
Judith Rosen wrote:
Hi Boris,
Since mathematics is not my forte, I've forwarded your message on to
one of my father's former PhD students, Dr. Aloisius Louie. I'll post
his response, when I receive it.
However, the crux of the matter in the passage you cited (Page 205,
Life, Itself) is this phrase:
Robert Rosen wrote: "Now let us suppose that N is a mechanism (every
model simulable) but that C(N) contains no largest model. Then we can
find an infinite sequence of increasingly refined models in C(N)."
If N is a mechanism it would have a finite "largest model" which is
the sum of all the models we could make and which would completely
describe the system. If C(N) is an infinite sequence with no largest
model, one would have to conclude that the system N is not a
mechanism.
He used the word "suppose"... just as he says on the previous page
"In this context, we can see the true import of additional
suppositions, such as 'Every natural system is a mechanism', or 'Every
organism is a machine'. These are, of course, part of the very fabric
of which contemporary science is composed. We are now in a position to
assess them directly; this has been, in fact, my intentention all
along."
He was disproving the idea that every natural system is a mechanism,
or that an organism is a machine. He nailed down what a mechanism is
and then showed that if a system has an infinite category of models,
it isn't a mechanism.
Judith
My favorite discussion list (Independent-- Not part of Rosen
Enterprises): ***
----- Original Message -----
From: Cybob10
To: ***
Sent: Saturday, December 11, 2004 7:54 AM
Subject: [ROSEN] Is it sure that any mechanism has a largest model?
(LI,8C, p.205)
I'd like to submit to Rosen readers what might appear at first sight
as a rather technical "detail". But it is not only a math problem
because it is the difference between relational models and
(analytic=synthetic) models that is put into question.
I shall begin with 2 remarks, and then come to my point.
Remark 1: in LI, p.203, section 8B (Machines and mechanisms), Rosen
says "A natural system N is a mechanism if and only if all of its
models are simulable". But from what I understoood, the notion of
"simulability" (calculability) covers mappings. Whereas models are
sets (cartesian products or direct sums). As a consequence the notion
of simulability for a model is not straightforward.
However, it might be possible to see a set A=\prod Ai (cartesian
product of sets Ai), that is to say an analytic model, as the identity
mapping from to A to A, and say that A is simulable if and only if
this identity mapping is simulable. And in the case where A is a
synthetic model just consider the associated analytic model, and apply
the same "trick". So it should be ok.
Remark 2: p.205, section 8C (On the largest model of a mechanism),
we want to prove that if a natural system N is a mechanism then it has
a unique largest model. First we suppose that the category C(N) of all
models of N has no largest model. Rosen says "Thus we can find an
infinite sequence of increasingly refined models M1<M2<...<Mi<...".
This is not obvious, but seems to be true, if you give yourself the
"choice axiom" (so called in french) of set theory, and consider that
it is always possible to construct the refinement of two models.
But then, and here I come to my point, Rosen says "We thus end up
with a countable family of distinct programs, each of which is a
distinct word of finite length on a finite alphabet : this is clearly
impossible". This is where I don't understand. Consider for instance
the sequence of all binary programs (binary sequences) ordered in
lexicographic order (0<1<00<01<10<10<000<001<010<010<011<100<....) :
this is a countable family of distinct programs, each of which is a
distinct word of finite length on a finite alphabet. So it seems
possible to have such a family.
Am I mistaking? If not, we loose the property that the category C(N)
of all models of a mechanism has a largest model, and we loose the
property that if N is a mechanism then analytic and synthetic coincide
in C(N) (conclusion 4, p.205, section 8B).
What do you think?
Boris