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Re: Is it sure that any mechanism has a largest model? (LI,8C, p.205)



Boris,
See interposed comments.
Regards,
Tim
-----Original Message-----
From: ROSEN Forum [mailto:***On Behalf Of Cybob10
Sent: Saturday, December 11, 2004 12:54 PM
To: ***
Subject: Re: Is it sure that any mechanism has a largest model? (LI,8C, p.205)

Thanks for your list and this opportunity to discuss Rosen's ideas!
Is it possible that my name (Boris Saulnier) appears in the "from" email field, instead of cybob10?
 
TG: This is a function of your email client (or perhaps, your internet service provider if you are using a web-based email). The list will use the name you send it. Right now, your email client is sending "cybob10" as the name on your emails.
 
I'm glad I can speak with you about this largest model question as I think it is a keystone in Rosen argumentation.
I go on with Judith and Tim's answers to my first post.
 
*** (1) Models as sets or as mappings ***
Tim, concerning your first point, let's collect what Rosen says:
a) "I shall call any _expression_ of a set S as a cartesian product of quotient sets an analysis of S". (LI, p.162)
b) "I will call the mapping f:S -->X an observable of S" (p.156)
c) "Every family of such observables gives rise to an analysis" (p.164) (the initial set S is represented in terms of the cartesian product of the spectra of observables. Let's remark here that the observables mus be non linked).
d) "Every such analysis gives us a model"(p.164) : here we might think that a model is an anlysis.
e) "The totality of analytic models can be identified with the totality of equivalence relations on S, or the totality of sets of observables" : here Rosen insists more on the observable side of the model.
 
So it is not so clear if a model is defined as an analysis or as a set of non linked observables. But I agree it should be possible to go reversly from one to the other (this is the "trick" I was speaking about in my first post).
 
Then Tim could you help me in having a better understanding of the second part of your 1st point, when you say :
>"Each model (analytic or synthetic) will have relations between observables which will place that model as members
>in the set of relations specified by a member of either the direct product or the direct sum (or, of course, where direct
> product/direct sum overlap, of both)."
My interpretation of this is that it will much more fruitfull to see models as mappings, because it is the organization of relations between all the models that will really count. 
 
 
TG: Yes, I think we agree. My feeling is that models can be represented as sets, but that representation is going to lose structure, in comparison to the representation of the models as mappings. Going from mappings to sets is something like a forgetful functor, in my view. For the purposes of Rosen's discussion of analytic vs. synthetic models, the set representation is adequate, and it allows the discussion to utilize the concepts of products and sums of sets.
 
 
*** (2) Largest model of a mechanism *** 
Let's come to the 2nd point. I'm convinced by Tim's formulation, but we may still have a step to clarify :
a) If the set of all (inequivalent) simulable models  Mi is countably infinite then we can list the countable infinite sequence of finite programs Ui corresponding to these models, then construct M' as the intersection of all the Mi's (related question : is this infinite intersection also a model?), consider the associated program U', and see that this U' must necessarily be (already) among the Ui's, so that we can not have an countably infinite sequence of inequivalent models.
b) Then we need to proove that "having no largest model" implies "having a countably infinite set of inequivalent models".
That's easy, because all the models are simulable, and because we have a 1-1 correspondance between models and programs, and because the set of finite programs is countably infinite.
 
TG: Agreed.
 
Nevertheless, don't you think we still need to proove that the infinite intersection of models is still a model?
 
TG: Hmmm.....I am not sure. I think if we agree that the intersection of any finite number of models is a model, then by induction so will the intersection of an infinite number of models....at least when it is a countable infinity.
 
I will have to think about this some more. At the moment, I cannot think of stronger reasoning than that.
 
Boris